Friday, January 26, 2007

Bible Masters, Help!

I've been hunting online for scholarly opinions on the significance, if any, of the following from 1 Corinthians 16:22-24:
If anyone does not love the Lord—a curse be on him. Come, O Lord!
The grace of the Lord Jesus be with you.
My love to all of you in Christ Jesus. Amen.
The word "love" in the first sentence is the Greek "phileo", but in the third sentence, it's "agape".

Question 1: Why do none of the commentators even mention this fact?

Question 2: Obviously, Paul had different shades of meaning, or he would not have used two different words. What do those shades of meaning translate into when brought over into English?

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